Questions for Judaizers

 

There simply is no way to consistently read the Bible without noticing at least a twofold distinction between the moral and ceremonial laws of God. Even the Rabbinic Jews make a distinction between the intuitive moral commands (mishpatim) and the obscure ceremonial customs of the nation (hukkim). It is self-evident and intuitive that things like murder and adultery are wrong. But commands about mixed fabrics, the sabbaths, and the feasts are clearly of a different nature. The ceremonial commandments cannot be known from conscience, and could only be known through direct revelation, so Paul speaks of a law of the letter and a law of the spirit. (2 Cor. 3:1-6; Rom. 7:6) The moral laws are written upon the conscience and can be known apart from direct revelation, as St. Paul says, so that even Gentiles, who do not know the written Scriptures do things of the moral law.

“For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them.” (Rom. 2:14, 15)

The work of which law is written in their hearts? The entire Mosaic law? Obviously not because every nation prohibits murder in some form, but they do not all have laws prohibiting mixed fabrics, working on sabbaths, mandating passover, etc. In general, you will find that Judaizers will ignore this distinction and fantasize that the entire law of Moses, all of the mitzvot, are necessary and absolute moral injunctions which could never be abolished. To expose this inconsistency, I have found the following questions to be useful.

1. Why did God have different ceremonial requirements before the Sinai covenant? There was no tabernacle, no, Aaronic priesthood, no, Levites, Northeast, different holy days, etc.

2. Why will there be different ceremonial requirements in the Millennial Kingdom? (Ezek. 40-48; Mal. 1:11, et al)

3. Why did the patriarchs break the Torah? And why did God fail to get angry with them for doing so?

4. If all men, at all times, and places are under obligation to keep the entire Torah, why did God wait until Moses to reveal it?

5. If there is no distinction between the moral and the ceremonial law, then why are people unable to sense with their consciences that they ought to be resting on the Sabbath? Every man should have a guilty conscience for working on the weekend just like he would over stealing, murder, adulter, etc.

6. The apostles directly say that the ceremonial features of the law, such as the sabbaths, holy days, feasts, etc. were all types and shadows of Christ. Is it better to observe the shadow or the fulfillment? (Col. 2:16-17; Heb. 8:5; 10:1)

7. Compared to whatever convoluted mental gymnastics you may give to get around the implications of these questions—isn’t it simpler just to say that the law covenant was abolished just like Paul repeatedly says?

8. What utility do the sacrifices of the law covenant currently have? If they have a utility that the cross does not, then the cross is not a “better sacrifice.” (Heb. 9:23-26)