Problems with Socinianism

Christ claimed to have come “from above,” [Jn. 3:31; 8:23.]  “from God,” [Jn. 13:2; 8:42; 13:3; 16:27, 28, 30; 17:8; cf. 1:14.]  and “from heaven.” [Jn. 3:13, 31.]  These texts must refer to a conscious existence in heaven alongside God, because Christ bore witness to what he had “seen and heard” when he was in heaven. (Jn. 3:31, 32) He must have literally and consciously existed in heaven to have seen and heard things there. Similarly, he was “sent into the world,” [Jn. 1:9; 9:39; 12:46; 18:37; 16:28.]  (Jn. 3:20) which implies that he was not always in the world. If Christ had a prehuman existence, all of these statements are easily explained, and are even to be expected; however, if he did not have a preexistence these are bizarre statements. At Jn. 6:46, Jesus claimed to have been the only man to have ever “seen God,” this refers to literally seeing God in heaven, because while other prophets had seen God in visions, only Christ had literally seen God in heaven, and descended from heaven. (Jn. 3:13; 6:62) 

To explain away the texts where Christ claims to have been sent from heaven into the world, Socinians have usually claimed that the man Jesus Christ ascended into heaven sometime during his earthly ministry, to receive instruction from God, and then descended again. [Thomas Rees, The Racovian Catechism: With Notes and Illustrations, translated from the Latin (London: Printed for Longman, Hurst, Rees, Orme, and Brown, Paternoster Row, 1818), pp. 170, 171.]  However, the Bible does tell us when he was in heaven with the Father, at John 17:5, Jesus Christ prayed,

 “Now, Father, glorify me together with yourself, with the glory which I had with you before the world was.”

He previously “had” glory with the Father in heaven, before the world was, and he asks to have this glory returned to him. If I were to ask, “give me the car I had in the 80s,” you would have no trouble understanding this statement. I once had a car in the 80s, and I want it back. The plain meaning of the passage is that Christ existed alongside God in glory before the world was created, and asked for this glory to be restored. If Christ was not alive before the creation of the world, is he requesting to cease existing and be reduced to a thought in God’s mind? Christians are said to presently ‘have’ grace stored up with God, but never is it said that they once “had'' glory ‘with God’ before the world was, and will have this glory returned to them. (2Tim. 1:9) 

None of what has been said threatens the humanity of Jesus Christ, when the Word became flesh, he was a man because that is all he was. He was not simultaneously a man and a spirit, he transformed from a spirit into flesh. The verb ginomai used in Jn. 1:14 is also used in Matt. 4:3 where stones are said to “become” bread, and in both cases, it signifies a metamorphosis. 

There is simply no good reason to deny that Christ had a preexistence, this is a doctrine explicitly taught in the scriptures and through denying it many degrade the dignity and honor of Jesus Christ by ignoring billions of years of his faithful service to God.

 Socinian and “Biblical Unitarian” writers reduce the Gospel of John to an allegory, and offer strange interpretations of the many texts which describe Christ as existing before the world was. It is far simpler to believe that Jesus of Nazareth had a prehuman existence, once this is accepted, the many verses which describe him as leaving heaven, existing before the universe, seeing God, mediating creation and so on, are easily explained. There is no need for ad-hoc or complicated ways to avoid the straightforward meaning of verses like Col. 1:16 or Jn. 17:5. I ask everyone to observe the case presented by each side, and to test each to determine which viewpoint explains all of the Biblical data simply. Thank you all for your time.

Not only is the Son “from heaven” but he has the ability to ‘testify regarding heavenly things.’ (Joh. 3:12) The author explains why the Son can testify about heavenly things, “He who comes from above is above all, he who is of the earth is from the earth and speaks of the earth. He who comes from heaven is above all. What He has seen and heard, of that He testifies; and no one receives His testimony.” (Joh. 3:31, 32) The Son can testify of heavenly things because he has “seen and heard” things in heaven.

Notes on John 8:58

 Another explicit statement of Christ’s preexistence is found in John 8:58, The Living Bible, published 1971 translates Christ’s answer, “I was in existence before Abraham was ever born,” and the Simple English Bible published 1981 similarly reads “I was alive before Abraham was born.” In Jn. 8:58, the present tense verb eimi includes a reference to a past time, namely before the birth of Abraham. Therefore, Christ is claiming to have existed uninterrupted, before Abraham was born, down to the time when he uttered these words, as Robertson explained,

The verb εἰμί, especially ἐστί and ἐστίν, may be merely a “form-word” like a preposition and not be the predicate. Sometimes it does express existence as a predicate like any other verb, as in ἐγὼ εἰμί (Jo. 8:58 and ἡ θάλασσα οὐκ ἔστιν ἔτι (Rev. 21:1). [A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek New Testament (1914), pp. 394.]

The same syntax is found elsewhere in the New Testament with the same meaning, confirming the validity of this sort of translation. [Lk. 2:48; 13:7; 15:29; Jn. 5:6; 14:9; 15:27; Ac. 15:21; 2Cor. 12:19; 1Jn. 3:8.]  Many respected New Testament scholars, such as Georg Winer, [G. B. Winer, A Grammar of the Idiom of the New Testament (Andover: Warren F. Draper 1897), pp. 267.]  James Moulton, [J. H. Moulton, N. Turner, A Grammar of the New Testament Greek, (London, New York: T & T Clark International, 1960), pp. 62.]  Joseph Sanders, [J. N. Sanders, A Commentary on the Gospel According to St. John, Edited and Completed by B.A. Mastin (London: A. & Black, 1968), pp. 158.]  and Kenneth McKay [K. L. McKay, A New Syntax of the Verb in New Testament Greek, An Aspectual Approach (New York: Peter Lang publishing, Inc., 1994), pp. 42.]  have recognized that the grammar of Jn. 8:58 signifies a claim to uninterrupted existence from before the time of Abraham.

This sort of translation also makes contextual sense, preexistence is a motif throughout this dialogue, Christ claims that he is “from above,” (Jn. 8:23) and to have been taught directly by God himself. [Using the preposition παρὰ (para) which means to be ‘alongside,’ or ‘near’ someone or something. (W. Arndt, F. Gingrich, A Greek English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, published by The University of Chicago Press in Grand Rapids, Michigan, pp. 615.) Christ learned his doctrine while he was “with” or “alongside” God himself, while his opponents were taught indirectly “from” the Devil. (Jn. 8:38)]  (8:38) He then speaks of Abraham’s rejoicing at “his day” as though he himself were present to see Abraham. (8:56) In 8:57 the Jews respond by asking Christ how he could have seen Abraham if he was not yet fifty? Christ directly answers by claiming to have existed before Abraham was born. [The Jews might have believed Christ to have been demon possessed when he claimed to have existed before Abraham. They made this accusation earlier in the dialogue, (8:48) and might have found a claim of existence before Abraham a confirmation of this. They may have reasoned that only angelic and demonic spirits could claim such a long existence.] 

The grammar of St. Joh. 8:58 is just what we would expect for a claim to have existed continuously from before Abraham to the present moment, therefore, the fifth century Syriac version renders it this way. (Francis C. Burkitt, Evangelion Da-Mepharreshe, p. 476, 477.)

"Amen, amen, I say to you that before Abraham came to be, I was."

ܐܡܪ ܠܗܘܢ ܐܡܝܢ ܐܡܝܢ ܐܡܪܢܐ ܠܟܘܢ ܕܥܕܠܐ ܢܗܘܐ ܐܒܪܗܡ ܐܢܐ ܐܝܬ ܗܘܝܬ

The present tense ειμί here includes a past tense to express an uninterrupted state of existence. Winer, a Unitarian grammarian who denied the pre-existence of Christ nonetheless admitted that the phrase πριν 'Αβραάμ γενέσθαι εγώ ειμί is best understood as describing temporal duration. The question posed to Christ in 8:57 was about his age and he responded directly to this.

 "Sometimes the Present includes also a past tense (Mdv. 108), viz. When the verb expresses a state which commenced at an earlier period but still continues, — a state in its duration; as Jno. xv. 27 απ' αρχής μετ' εμού εστέ, viii. 58 πριν 'Αβραάμ γενέσθαι εγώ ειμί." (Georg B. Winer, A Grammar of the Idiom, p. 267.)

The first two examples cited by Winer are St. Joh. 15:27 "you have been with me from the beginning," and St. Joh. 8:58 "before Abraham was I am." In St. Joh. 15:27 the present tense εστέ is used in reference to an earlier period of time and signifies the continuous presence of the disciples with Christ from the start of his ministry. This same sort of construction is found elsewhere in the Johannine corpus as well. (St. Joh. 5:6; 14:9; 15:29; Rev. 21:1) This would provide a direct answer to the query of the Pharisees, "You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?" Their objection is specifically about the age of Jesus. His response, naturally, would have been along the same lines, "Before Abraham was born, I am."

An Answer to Socinianism

Many unitarians have fallen into the error of denying the literal pre-human existence of Jesus Christ, especially the Socinians and the Christadelphians. The Socinians teach that Jesus was essentially a prophet who did not exist before his conception in Mary and often they deny the doctrines of original sin, or imputed guilt and substitutionary atonement.

 There are two main kinds of pre-existence in ancient Jewish literature, firstly there is the concept of literal pre-existence in which a person is said to preexist their human life as a spirit or an angelic being. This concept is found in ancient Jewish writings like the book of Enoch, where the Son of Man figure is said to have existed with God consciously before the world was created,

 “The Elect and the Concealed One existed in his presence, before the world was created, and for ever. In his presence he existed, and has revealed to the saints and to the righteous the wisdom of the Lord of spirits.” (1Enoch 48:5, 6 compare 62:7.)

There is also the concept of notional or ideal pre-existence, where figures are said to exist in the mind of God before their human lives, for example, the words of Paul, “he chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love.” (Ephesians 1:4, NKJV) Although the saints did not consciously exist before the world was, they existed in the mind of God, and therefore, Paul says they were chosen before the founding of the world. The earliest Christian writings external to the New Testament, the so-called Apostolic fathers contain many references to the pre-existence of Christ.

In  the Second Epistle of Clement, an anonymous first century homily, the author says, “Christ, the Lord who saved us, became flesh, even though he was originally a spirit.” (9:4) The Epistle of Barnabas 6:12 reads, “He says to the Son: “Let us make humankind according to our image and likeness, and let them rule over the beasts of the earth and the birds of the air and the fish of the sea” and when he saw that our creation was good, the Lord said: “Increase and multiply and fill the earth.” These things he said unto the Son.” When God created mankind in the beginning, the author of the epistle of Barnabas interprets Christ as the person whom God spoke to. The Shepherd of Hermas, Origen, Athenagoras, Tatian, Lactantius, Justin Martyr, Cyprian, Tertullian, Irenaeus, and so on, all clearly teach that the Lord Jesus had a pre-human existence. Therefore, the pre-existence of Christ is a doctrine taught in the earliest centuries of the Church and it cannot be labeled as a later development. The Greek term for pre-existence is πρόειμι and the first extant use in ancient Christian literature in the Shepherd of Hermas.

πρόειμι ptc. προών (εἰμί; cp. Il. 1, 70 τά τ᾽ ἐόντα τά τ᾽ ἐσσόμενα πρό τ᾽ ἐόντα; Hes., Theog. 32 τὰ τ᾽ ἐσσόμενα πρό τ᾽ ἐόντα and later wr.; pap, EpArist) be preexistent (Herm. Wr. 422, 25 Sc. ὁ προὼν θεός) of the Holy Spirit Hs 5, 6, 5.—Renehan ’82, 121.

 But the most important testimony to the literal pre-existence of Christ is given in God’s word the Bible. I will begin consider a handful of texts which clearly teach that Jesus had a literal pre-existence and consider common objections to the doctrine given by the Socinians. Socinians and Christadelphians often argue that Jesus Christ had a notional pre-existence but he did not have a literal pre-existence. But there are Biblical texts which necessitate that Christ had a literal pre-existence, and John 17:5 is one of these texts. Our Lord prayed to the Father and made this request,

“And now, O Father, glorify me together with yourself, with the glory which I had with you before the world was.” (Joh. 17:5)

We can discern three things about the glory mentioned in this verse. (1) Jesus had the glory. (2) At a subsequent time, he did not have the glory. (3) He is requesting to be given the glory he once had. It is obvious that Jesus previously possessed this glory, because he refers to it as “the glory which I had.” He also did not have this glory at a subsequent time, because he speaks of it in the past tense, he says the glory I had, not the glory I have. Further, he asks to have this glory returned to him, because he requests to be glorified with the glory that he once possessed. If these three propositions are correct, then Joh. 17:5 teaches that Jesus had a literal pre-human existence.

The assertions made in Joh. 17:5 either refer to notional pre-existence or to literal pre-existence, they could not apply to notional pre-existence, and therefore, they refer to a literal pre-existence. Socinian Christology would deny propositions number two and three.

If Jesus were referring to ideal glory which was eternally predestined in God’s mind or plan, then he would always have this glory in God’s plan of salvation. But Jesus did not have the glory mentioned in Joh. 17:5, otherwise he would not be asking for it. If Jesus were speaking of an ideal or notional pre-existence as Socinians claim, then he would always have this glory in the mind of God.

Socinian Christology also denies the third proposition, that Jesus is requesting to be given the glory he once had. It is obvious that in Joh. 17:5, Jesus is asking to be glorified alongside God consciously in heaven, and he already “had” this kind of glory before. However, on a Socinian Christology, Jesus would be asking for something he never had before. Jesus once had this glory in the past, he calls it, “the glory which I had with you before the world was.” This statement could not be about notional glory in God’s mind, because Jesus would still have glory in the plan of God, and such glory is spoken about as being presently stored up with God. For example, our treasure presently “is” in heaven, not, we “had” treasures in heaven before the world was, and we want to have them returned to us. (Matt. 6:20, 21) The Bible says that Christians presently “have” glory with God, not “we had it.” (Joh. 17:21, 22) We were “given” grace before the founding of the world, not we “had” it and request to have it again. (2Tim. 1:9) Christ Jesus did not currently have the glory mentioned in Joh. 17:5. He once had it, and possessed it no longer.

The Bible clearly teaches that someone besides the Father was involved in creation, Gen. 1:26 says, “And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness.” He spoke to another who was involved in the creation of the world. What about Isa 44:24, it says, “I am the Lord that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself.”

The language of God acting “alone” and “by himself” means that the Father is the source or primary cause, it does not mean that no one else is involved, and it does not preclude using agency. This can be proven by a parallel statement, Psa. 72:18 says, “God alone works wonders.” Yet, throughout the Bible, the apostles and others work wonders and miracles. When the Bible says that God alone works wonders it meansGod Alone is the source and primary cause of Miracles, it does not mean that God cannot perform Miracles through someone else. Equivalently when Isaiah 44:24 says that God Alone created it means that God Alone is a primary source and cause of creation it does not mean that God cannot create through someone else. Therefore what God says let us make man in our image, he is speaking to someone who was his agent in creation, the one through whom he made all things.

The Bible identifies this person as Jesus Christ, Heb. 1:2 “in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom He also made the world.” The world was made through the agency of Christ. But does this verse refer to the new creation or to the old creation? Consider what follows in Hebrews 1:10-12, it says about Christ,

"You, Lord, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, And the heavens are the works of Your hands; They will perish, but You remain; And they all will wear out like a garment, And like a robe You will roll them up; Like a garment they will also be changed. But You are the same, And Your years will not come to an end."

This could not be the new creation because the world described in the verses will “perish and war out like a garment.” The new creation will never perish or be destroyed, therefore these passages must describe the old creation. (cf. 2Pet. 1:11; 3:13) This same thought is repeated at John 1:10,

“He was in the world, and the world came into being through Him, and yet the world did not know Him.”

This could not be the new creation, because this world “did not know him,” and certainly the new creation would have known him. The very same earth that Jesus Christ walked on was created through him. By calling the Word θεὸς John is identifying the Logos as a person.

Many unitarians are quite hesitant to affirm the pre human existence of Jesus Christ because they fear somehow supporting trinitarian Doctrine. However, the Lord Jesus did not have an eternal pre-existence, he is identified plainly as the firstborn of every creature and the beginning of the creation of God. (Col. 1:15; Rev. 3:14)

The conversation between Christ and Nicodemus in John chapter 3 is full of references to literal pre-existence, and it is especially worth considering. Nicodemus approaches the Lord Jesus at night and says, “Rabbi, we know that You have come from God as a teacher; for no one can do these signs that You do unless God is with him."

Here, the phrase, “from God,” uses the Greek preposition  ἀπὸ with the genitive object, θεοῦ. In the New Testament, this construction is used only in reference to Jesus coming from heaven, and for the angel Gabriel leaving heaven. Luke 1:26 says, “Gabriel was sent from God,” signifying Gabriel leaving God’s presence in heaven to come down to earth. This same sort of language is applied to Jesus Christ.

At Joh. 3:3 Jesus told Nicodemus that men must be born again if they are to enter the heavenly Kingdom. Nicodemus does not understand Jesus in Joh. 3:4 and asks how a man can be born again when he is old. Jesus tells Nicodemus in Joh. 3:10, 12, “You are the teacher of Israel and you do not understand these things? … If I told you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things?”

Notice that Jesus had already told Nicodemus earthly things, he says, “If I told you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things?” He had already talked about earthly things like being born again, but had not yet mentioned heavenly things. Being born again is called an “earthly thing” because it happens on the earth. By earthly things, Christ means the operation of God’s holy spirit upon the earth, equivalently, heavenly things must refer to events in heaven. Jesus is specifically talking about location.

He continues in Joh. 3:13 “No one has ascended into heaven, except He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.” These texts must refer to a conscious existence in heaven alongside God, because Joh. 3:31, 32 informs us, “He who comes from heaven is above all. What he has seen and heard of that He testifies.” Jesus must have consciously existed in heaven to have “seen and heard” things there. He testifies about what he has seen and heard, and could testify about earthly things and heavenly things. The fact that had previously been in heaven is confirmed again in Joh. 6:62 which says, “What then if you see the Son of Man ascending to where He was before?” When Jesus ascended to heaven, he was not going there for the first time, he was ascending where he was before. Throughout, John’s Gospel, Jesus claims to have come “from above,” (Joh. 8:23) “from God,” (Joh. 13:2; 8:42; 13:3; 16:27, 28, 30; 17:8; cf. 1:14) and “from heaven.” (Joh. 3:13, 31)

Now that we have given a general overview of the New Testament evidence for the pre-human existence of Christ, we will consider some common objections levied by Socinian authors. It is often said that Jesus could not be truly human if he had a pre-human existence, or that he could not be a descendant of Abraham. These objections have a hidden assumption that it would be impossible for the almighty God to cause a spirit to become a human being. But surely that is not reasonable. If God wished to cause an angelic being to become a human being, he has the power and authority to do so. At Matt. 3:9 says, “God is able, from these stones, to raise up children for Abraham.” If God could cause stones to become children for Abraham, surely he can cause the divine Word to become flesh.

It has also been suggested that Rom. 1:3 indicates that Christ did not have a pre-human existence, this is not easily seen in most versions, but accordion gto the KJV it reads, “Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh.” It is argued that the phrase “made of the seed of David” indicates that Christ’s absolute origin was as a descendent of David. But the verb for “made” used here γενομενος, can often mean to become in status, or to cause to be. It is not always used for absolute origins. For example, Acts 1:16 says that Judas “became (γενομενος) a guide to those who arrested Jesus.” Surely, it does not mean that Judas came into existence absolutely when he became a guide to those who arrested Jesus, the language does not necessarily indicate absolute origins. Secondly, discerning Bible students will notice that Rom. 1:3, contrats Jesus’ human sonship and his divine sonship,“concerning His Son [meaning, God’s son], who was born of a descendant of David according to the flesh.” He is both the Son of David and the Son of God simultaneously and in different senses. In a similar way the Bible identifies Jesus as the “firstborn of every creature” and also calls him “the firstborn of Mary,” the former description applies to his pre-existence and the latter to his human life.

Debate Outline: Pre-Existence of Christ

10 Min.

By the pre-existence or pre-human existence of Christ I refer to the concept that Jesus of Nazareth existed before his human life as a divine spirit. The term "pre-existence" is not found in the Bible, it is merely a term which is used for the sake of convenience. But it does express a Biblical concept. In a similar way the term "Unitarian" is found nowhere in scripture, but it used for the sake of convenience. It is possible to affirm the  pre-human existence of Christ without undermining monotheism if the Son came into existence at some point in the finite past. This kind of pre-existence is found an ancient Jewish writings like the Book of Enoch and the Prayer of Joseph. Many early Christian authors, believed that Jesus existed before his human life as a spirit. In the Second Epistle of Clement, an anonymous first century homily, the author says, "Christ, the Lord who saved us, became flesh, even though he was originally a spirit." (2Clem. 9:4) Therefore the doctrine I am presenting to you is not a later development like the Trinity but is a concept present in the earliest ancient Christian literature. 

There is also the concept of notional or ideal pre-existence, where figures are said to exist in the mind or plan of God before their human lives. A notable example is Eph. 1:4 which says, "even as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before him." It is said that the saints were chosen before the foundation of the world. This does not mean that the saints had a conscious pre-existence with God before creation, rather they existed in the mind and plan of God, and in this sense Paul says they were chosen before the foundation of the world. 

Now, consider carefully the words of John 17:5, where Jesus said the following in prayer, "And now, Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was." Three things are evident about the glory mentioned in this verse. 

(1) Jesus "had" this glory, (2) at a subsequent time, he did not have the glory, (3) and he is requesting to be given the glory he once had.

(1) It is obvious that Jesus previously possessed this glory, because he refers to it as "the glory which I had." (2) He also did not have this glory at a subsequent time, because he speaks of it in the past tense, "the glory I had," not 'the glory I have.'  (3) Moreover, Christ asks to have this glory returned to him—he does not ask to be given a new glory which he had never experienced before, rather he asks to be given what previously had with the Father before the world was. These three things could only be true if Jesus had a literal pre-human existence. If Jesus were referring to a notional pre-existence, to glory which was eternally predestined in God’s mind or plan, then he would always have this glory in God’s plan he would not be asking for it, he would always have this glory. But the glory mentioned in Joh. 17:5 is glory that he once had with the Father, before the world was, and wishes to have returned to him. This could only be true if he actually existed with God before the world was, and gave up this glorious position to become human. 

 

At Joh. 8:56 Jesus told the Jews, "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day; and he saw it, and was glad." The Jews therefore said unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was born, I am." In Joh. 8:58 the present tense εἰμι is used to express a state of existence which began at an earlier period and continues to the present. The grammar is exactly what we would expect if Christ were claiming to have existed since the time of Abraham. This would provide a direct answer to the question about his age. 

In many places, Jesus speaks of his ascension to heaven as though he were already there previously. 

Joh. 6:62 "What then if ye should behold the Son of man ascending where he was before?" 

Joh. 13:3 "Jesus, knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he came forth from God, and goeth unto God." 

John 16:28 "I came out from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go unto the Father." 

When Christ ascended into heaven he was not going there for the first time. He came forth from God and was returning to him. He was ascending where he was before. What is the simplest way of understanding these statements? He previously lived in heaven, alongside the Father and was returning there.

There are also very many passages which teach that Jesus Christ was involved in the creation of the universe. (Joh. 1:3, 10; 1Cor. 8:6; [Eph. 3:9]; Col. 1:16, 17; Heb. 1:2, 10-12) Historically, Socinian authors have said that these passages refer to the new creation. But this cannot be the case for many of these examples, consider Heb. 1:10-12, which says regarding Jesus,

"Thou, Lord, didst found the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of thy hands; they will perish, but thou remainest; they will all grow old like a garment, like a mantle thou wilt roll them up, and they will be changed. But thou art the same, and thy years will never end.""

Notice that the heavens and earth mentioned will perish, grow old like a garment, and be rolled up like a mantle. These descriptions could not apply to the new creation because the new creation will last forever and will never be brought to ruin. (2Pet. 2:11; Dan. 2:44) Therefore this passage teaches that Jesus was involved in the creation of the physical universe. Recall that Genesis 1:26, God said "let us make man in our image," this establishes that at least one other person besides the Father was involved in the creation of the world. Would it not be reasonable to say that he was speaking to his only begotten son? 

Now, some may object that Isaiah 44:24 says that God the Father 'stretched out the heavens alone,' and this is true. But consider that Psalm 72:18 says that "God alone works wonders" and yet God worked "wonders" and miracles through the apostles and prophets. (Matt. 21:15; Acts 2:22, 43; 4:30; 5:12; 6:8; 14:3; 15:12; Rom. 15:19; 2Cor. 12:12; Heb. 2:4) When Psalm 72:18 says that God alone works wonders it means that God alone is this source and originating cause of such wonders—it does not mean that God cannot work wonders through others. Equivalently, when Isaiah 44:24 says that the father alone stretched out the heavens, this is not in contradiction with the belief that God did this through his son Jesus. 

With regard to John 1:1 I will not explain the usual grammatical arguments because I am sure that most Unitarians are already aware that the passage may validly be translated as "the Word was a god." In the third clause θεός is singular, anarthrous and pre-verbal, and may be rendered as indefinite, "a god," rather than "God" is possible. There are many examples of the same grammar found elsewhere which vindicate this kind of translation. (Acts 28:4; Joh. 4:19, etc.) Are we really to think that the apostle John referred to an impersonal plan as "a god"? Throughout every other occurrence in John's writings, his Gospel, three epistles and Revelation, he never once uses θεός to refer to an impersonal plan for concept. He always applies the term to persons. And why did so many in the early Church understand the Logos as a person if John meant to signify the plan and purpose of God? We have no record of any author in the first three centuries who says the Logos of John's prologue is an impersonal plan. Even if one wishes to be Unitarian, he must admit that the Logos is likely to be a person if he is a god.

It is sometimes argued that Jesus could not be truly human if he had a pre-human existence, or that he could not be a descendant of Abraham. These objections have a hidden assumption. This hidden assumption is God could not cause a spirit to become a human descendant of Abraham. But surely that is not reasonable. If God wished to cause an angel, or some other creature to become a human being, he has the power and authority to do so. At Matt. 3:9 says, "God is able, from these stones, to raise up children for Abraham." If God could cause even stones to become children for Abraham, surely the Word could become flesh. (Joh. 1:14) Or are we to say that it is impossible? It seems to be a very bold claim to say that God is incapable of doing such a thing. Surely, if God purposed to do such a thing he could bring it about.